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Title: Is Lindsaig a feudal barony?
Posted by: Craig McClay Wilson
Date: 27 December 2006

While Lindsaig is not listed in the Registry of Scottish Feudal Baronies, there is some support for the notion that Lindsaig is a barony or part of a barony:

1) The Regisrty is admitedly incomplete.

2) Our "Account" contains some supporting informatiom:
  a) The author refers to the Lindsaig McLeas as barons.
  b) In the 1300s, Lamont of Ardlamont received the 2 penny lands of Lynsay from Meneith who held the lands of Stewart of Scotland.
  c) In 1536 these lands were sold to Argyll, who had realtionships with the McLeas.
  d)  The McLeas in the area also were affilated with Lamonts of Inveryne.

3)  Lamont history says Lindsaig was held "of the crown" by their family.

4)  The 1688, 1751, and 1802 Valuatiion Rolls show McLeas owning Lindsaig in 1688 and 1751, with the Campbell of Otter getting ownership by 1802.  Lamonts owned several nearby lands including Inveryne.

5)  The Barony Registry does have an interesting listing in Argyll for a barony called "otterinvernan".

Not sure how to further research this question.  Thoughts?

** This Thread has ended - Please do NOT attempt to resurrect it! **


Title:Date:Posted By:
Is Lindsaig a feudal barony?27 December 2006Craig McClay Wilson
   Is Lindsaig a feudal barony?28 December 2006Young Bachuil
      Is Lindsaig a feudal barony?28 December 2006Craig McClay Wilson

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